Q:

A 52-year-old man with known aortic stenosis develops angina pectoris and has a single episode of syncope. The following is/are true:

waelhammad
Save to bookmark
|
2022-12-10
|
  77 
0

A 52-year-old man with known aortic stenosis develops angina pectoris and has a single episode of syncope. The following is/are true:

  1. Onset of angina indicates concomitant coronary artery disease independent of valvular lesion
  2. Percutaneous aortic balloon valvuloplasty should be considered since it has generally favorable results
  3. Patient is not an operative candidate since heart failure has not occurred
  4. A measured transvalvular pressure gradiant > 50 mmHg would be an operative indication
Medicine, textbook solutions, MCQ Questions, Medicine textbook-solutions, Medicine MCQ-questions,
login and add your own answer to this question

All Answers

waelhammad
2022-12-10
need an explanation for this answer? contact us directly to get an explanation for this answer

d. A measured transvalvular pressure gradiant > 50 mmHg would be an operative indication

The ventricular hypertrophy which accompanies aortic stenosis increases oxygen demand while mechanical forces increase resistance to perfusion, resulting in ischemia. Only one half of these patients with angina have coronary artery disease. Percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty of the aortic valve has high complication and recurrence rates. Any such patient with symptoms has an indication for operations as would the patient with a transvalvular gradiant > 50 mmHg.

need an explanation for this answer? contact us directly to get an explanation for this answer

total answers (1)

Similar questions

need a help?

find thousands of online teachers now