A 79 year old man has a swelling of the right groin which was clinically diagnosed to be indirect inguinal hernia. What is the single feature of the hernia sac that would confirm the diagnosis?

The key is E. Passes through the deep inguinal ring. [Ingunal hernia lies mostly above and medial (occasionally lateral particularly when small) to pubic tubercle. It first enters the inguinal canal through deep inguinal ring and then enters the scrotum through the superficial inguinal ring].