A 60 year old man presents with mass in the groin. Examination: mass lies below the midpoint of the inguinal ligament and is pulsatile. What is the most probable diagnosis?
belongs to book: 1700 MCQ REVISED VERSION TOPIC WISE|DR. KHALID SAIFULLAH|4th EDITION| Chapter number:23| Question number:51
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The key is E. Femoral aneurism . [Hernia below pubic tubercle (below inguinal ligament) is femoral hernia. But below mid-inguinal point and pulsatile mass is femoral aneurism].
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