Q:

A 66 year old man has renal colic. He has also presented with acute onset pain in his knee in the past. What is the single most likely cause for renal failure?

waelhammad
Save to bookmark
|
2022-11-04
|
  70 
0

A 66 year old man has renal colic. He has also presented with acute onset pain in his knee in the past. What is the single most likely cause for renal failure?

  1. SLE associated GN
  2. Hypercalcemia
  3. HTN
  4. Hyperuricemia
  5. Hyperoxaluria
Medicine, textbook solutions, MCQ Questions, Medicine textbook-solutions, Medicine MCQ-questions,
login and add your own answer to this question

All Answers

waelhammad
2022-11-04
need an explanation for this answer? contact us directly to get an explanation for this answer

The key is D. hyperuricemia. [Knee pain is due to gout and renal colic may occur from uric acid stone (urate stone)].

need an explanation for this answer? contact us directly to get an explanation for this answer

total answers (1)

Similar questions

need a help?

find thousands of online teachers now