A 40 year old female was on COCP which she stopped 6 months ago. But she has not had her periods since then. Labs: FSH=22, LH=24, prolactin=700, estradiol=80. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
belongs to book: 1700 MCQ REVISED VERSION TOPIC WISE|DR. KHALID SAIFULLAH|4th EDITION| Chapter number:18| Question number:87
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Medicine
The key is E. Premature ovarian failure. [FSH and LH are raised in ovarian failure; an FSH level ≥20 IU/l in a woman aged around 40 with secondary amenorrhoea indicates ovarian failure. In POF there is also a mild to moderate rise in prolactin].
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