A 54 year old man has collapsed suddenly following a headache. He has hypertension and takes warfarin for prosthetic heart valve. GCS=4 and dilated left pupil. What is the single most likely diagnosis?
belongs to book: 1700 MCQ REVISED VERSION TOPIC WISE|DR. KHALID SAIFULLAH|4th EDITION| Chapter number:5| Question number:138
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The key is C. Intracerebral hemorrhage. [Headache, collapse, and warfarine use makes the dx of
intracerebral hemorrhage most likely].
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