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1700 MCQ REVISED VERSION TOPIC WISE
by
DR. KHALID SAIFULLAH
Edition:
4th EDITION
ISBN13:
ISBN10:
1721
Medicine
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1700 MCQ REVISED VERSION TOPIC WISE
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Chapter: 18 /
Q: 127
A primipara at fullterm in labor has passed show and the cervix is 3 cm dilated. What is the single most appropriate management for her labor?
Chapter: 18 /
Q: 128
A woman comes to the emergency department complaining of pain in the right side of the abdomen, she has 7 weeks amenorrhea. Her pregnancy test is +ve and US scan shows an empty uterus. What is the next step?
Chapter: 18 /
Q: 129
A 68 year old woman presents with post-coital bleeding following her first episode of sexual intercourse in 10 year. What is the single most likely cause that has led to post-coital bleeding?
Chapter: 18 /
Q: 130
A 28 year old woman 8 weeks GA (gestational age) had PID (pelvic inflammatory disease) treated previously and now comes with vaginal bleeding, rigid abdomen, BP 80/50mmHg, pulse 140bpm. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Chapter: 18 /
Q: 131
A 24 year old woman has had lower abdominal pain for 12 hours. She is otherwise well. She is at 10 weeks GA (gestational age) in a planned pregnany. What is the single most appropriate test to investigate the cause of acute abdomen in this lady?
Chapter: 18 /
Q: 132
A patient is at term and in labour, the membranes have ruptured, the liquor contains meconium but the CTG is normal. The cervix is 3cm dilated. What is the single most appropriate action?
Chapter: 18 /
Q: 133
A patient is at term and labor. The head has been delivered and you suspect shoulder dystocia. What is the single most appropriate action?
Chapter: 18 /
Q: 134
A 29 year old female at 28 weeks of GA (gestational age) presents to you with complains of hard stools and constipation for last 2 weeks. CTG shows fetal tachycardia. What is the single most appropriate treatment?
Chapter: 18 /
Q: 135
A 16 year old girl presents with heavy bleeding. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?
Chapter: 18 /
Q: 136
A woman who is 7 weeks pregnant presents with excessive and severe vomiting and put on IV fluids and anti-emetic (ondansteron). She is complaining of severe headache and can’t take oral fluids. What is the most appropriate management?
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